Systems K1A to K1E 1
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1. On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) In a fuel pump system, two fuel pumps are used on most airplanes. The main fuel pump is engine-driven, and an auxiliary electric-driven pump is provided for use in the event the engine pump fails.
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2. To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) One should purge water from both the fuel strainer drain and all the fuel tank sumps on an airplane. This is the purpose of such drains. They are placed at low areas of the fuel system and should be drained prior to each flight.
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3. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered good operating practice because it prevents moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks. Humid air may result in condensation at night when the airplane cools.
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4. What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) If the recommended octane is not available for an airplane, the next higher octane aviation gas should be used.
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5. Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) The fuel/air ratio, i.e., mixture, is the ratio between the weight of fuel and the weight of air entering the cylinder.
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6. While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) At 9,500 feet, the mixture control is adjusted to provide the proper fuel/air ratio. As the airplane descends, the density of the air increases and there will be less fuel to air in the ratio, causing a leaner running engine. This excessively lean mixture will create higher cylinder temperature and may cause detonation.
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7. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) At higher altitudes, the air density is decreased. Thus, the mixture control must be adjusted to decrease the fuel flow in order to maintain a constant fuel/air ratio.
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8. If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges exceed their normal operating range, it is possible that the power setting is too high and the fuel/air mixture is set excessively lean. These conditions may cause engine overheating.
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9. An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) Operating with an excessively low oil level prevents the oil from being cooled adequately; i.e., an inadequate supply of oil will not be able to transfer engine heat to the engine’s oil cooler (similar to a car engine’s water radiator). Insufficient oil may also damage an engine from excessive friction within the cylinders and on other metal-to-metal contact parts.
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10. Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) VLE means the maximum landing gear extended speed.
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11. The reason a 4-cylinder reciprocating engine continues to run after the ignition switch is positioned to OFF may be a
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) A broken magneto ground wire will cut off grounding for the magneto, allowing it to continue sending electricity to the spark plugs for the engine to run.
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12. If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) Loose or broken wires in the ignition system can cause problems. For example, if the ignition switch is OFF, the magneto may continue to fire if the ignition switch ground wire is disconnected. If this occurs, the only way to stop the engine is to move the mixture lever to the idle cut-off position, then have the system checked by a qualified aviation maintenance technician.
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13. One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) Most airplane engines are equipped with dual ignition systems, which have two magnetos to supply the electrical current to two spark plugs for each combustion chamber. The main advantages of the dual system are increased safety and improved burning and combustion of the mixture, which results in improved performance.
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14. What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) A controllable-pitch propeller (constant-speed) permits the pilot to select the blade angle that will result in the most efficient performance given the flight conditions. A low blade angle and a decreased pitch reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine RPM (power) for takeoffs. After airspeed is attained during cruising flight, the propeller blade is changed to a higher angle to increase pitch. The blade takes a larger bite of air at a lower RPM and consequently increases the efficiency of the flight. This process is similar to shifting gears in an automobile from low to high gear.
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15. A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) For any given RPM, there is a manifold pressure that should not be exceeded. Manifold pressure is excessive for a given RPM when the cylinder design pressure is exceeded, placing undue stress on them. If repeated or extended, the stress would weaken the cylinder components and eventually cause engine failure.
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16. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) Airplanes equipped with controllable-pitch propellers have both a throttle control and a propeller control. The throttle controls the power output of the engine, which is registered on the manifold pressure gauge. This is a simple barometer that measures the air pressure in the engine intake manifold in inches of mercury. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM, which is registered on a tachometer.
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17. What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) Enriched fuel mixtures have a cooling effect on an engine.
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18. What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) If an airplane is overheating during a climb, the engine temperature will be decreased if the airspeed is increased. Airspeed will increase if the rate of climb is reduced.
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19. For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) An engine accomplishes much of its cooling by the flow of oil through the lubrication system. The lubrication system aids in cooling by reducing friction and absorbing heat from internal engine parts. Many airplane engines use an oil cooler, a small radiator device that will cool the oil before it is recirculated through the engine.
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20. Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) Operating the engine at excessively high temperatures will cause loss of power and excessive oil consumption, and can permanently damage engines.
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21. Excessively high engine temperatures will
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 7) Excessively high engine temperatures will result in loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
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22. Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) VFE means the maximum flap extended speed.
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23. What is the maximum flaps-extended speed? (Refer to Figure 4: Airspeed Indicator)
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 8) The maximum flaps-extended speed is indicated by the upper limit of the white arc. This is the highest airspeed at which a pilot should extend full flaps. At higher airspeeds, severe strain or structural failure could result. The upper limit of the white arc on the airspeed indicator shown in Fig. 4 indicates 100 kts.
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24. What is the full flap operating range for the airplane? (Refer to Figure 4: Airspeed Indicator)
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 8) The full flap operating range is indicated by the white arc on the airspeed indicator. The airspeed indicator in Fig. 4 indicates the full flap operating range is from 55 to 100 kts.
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25. Trim systems are designed to do what?
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 6) Trim systems are used to relieve the pilot of the need to maintain constant pressure on the flight controls. They include trim tabs, anti-servo tabs, and ground adjustable tabs.
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26. Which device is a secondary flight control?
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 6) Spoilers are high-drag devices that assist an aircraft in slowing down and losing altitude without gaining extra speed. They are common on gliders and some high-speed aircraft.
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27. Which of the following is true concerning flaps?
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 6) Flaps are attached to the trailing edge of the wing and are used during approach and landing to increase wing lift. This allows an increase in the angle of descent without increasing airspeed.
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28. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 6) Extending the flaps increases the wing camber and the angle of attack of the wing. This increases wing lift and induced drag, which enables the pilot to increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
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29. What is one purpose of wing flaps?
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 6) Extending the flaps increases the wing camber and the angle of attack of the wing. This increases wing lift and induced drag, which enables the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without an increase in airspeed.
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30. Which statement is true concerning primary flight controls?
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 6) Rudder, aileron, and elevator effectiveness increase with speed because there is more airflow over the surface of the control device.
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31. The elevator controls movement around which axis?
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 6) The elevator is the primary control device for changing the pitch attitude of an airplane about the lateral axis.
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32. Which is not a primary flight control surface?
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 6) The three primary flight controls of an airplane are the ailerons, the elevator (or stabilator), and the rudder.
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33. What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 6) The rudder is used to control yaw, which is rotation about the airplane’s vertical axis.
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