Lesson 2 EEQ

Written By Erick Teeters  |  Private Pilot  |  0 Comments

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Lesson 2 EEQ

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1. You are PIC of a flight. During your preflight, you notice a mechanical discrepancy that you think makes the aircraft unairworthy. Who is responsible for this determination?

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2. To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request

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3. What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?

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4. What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?

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5. What service should a pilot normally expect from Flight Service?

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6. Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

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7. For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the

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8. What are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)? (Refer to Figure 12: Aviation Routine Weather Reports (METAR))

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9. The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from (Refer to Figure 12: Aviation Routine Weather Reports (METAR))

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10. Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather? (Refer to Figure 12: Aviation Routine Weather Reports (METAR))

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11. In the TAF for KMEM, what does “SHRA” stand for? (Refer to Figure 15: Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF))

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12. In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes (Refer to Figure 15: Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF))

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13. What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM? (Refer to Figure 15: Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF))

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14. Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?

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15. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a

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16. If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62°F, what type weather is most likely to develop?

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17. What is meant by the term “dewpoint”?

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18. The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the

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19. Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

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20. In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

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21. What depicts a Class E airspace that begins at 700 feet AGL? (Refer to Figure 15: Chart Supplement)

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22. When a control tower located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

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23. The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are

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24. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

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25. During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

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26. What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day? (Refer to Figure 78: Sectional Chart Excerpt)

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27. Weather information is available at the Coeur d’Alene (COE) Airport (Area 2) (Refer to Figure 22: Sectional Chart Excerpt)

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28.

Determine the approximate ground roll distance required for takeoff. (Refer to Figure 40: Airplane Takeoff Distance Graph)
OAT = 38°C
Pressure altitude = 2,000 ft
Takeoff weight = 2,750 lb
Headwind component = Calm

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29.

Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle. (Refer to Figure 40: Airplane Takeoff Distance Graph)
OAT = Std
Pressure altitude = 4,000 ft
Takeoff weight = 2,800 lb
Headwind component = Calm

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30. What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

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31. Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?

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32. As air temperature increases, density altitude will

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33. If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is

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34. The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are

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35. When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?

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36. Which statement relates to Bernoulli’s principle?

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37. The acute angle A is the angle of (Refer to Figure 1: Left Vector)

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38. The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle between the

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39. What force makes an airplane turn?

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40. What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

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41. Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft’s

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42. In what flight condition are torque effects more pronounced in a single-engine airplane?

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43. The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

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44. When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

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45. VS0 is defined as the

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46. The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

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47. According to the airport diagram, which statement is true? (Refer to Figure 48: Airport Diagram)

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48. (Refer to F.) This sign confirms your position on (Refer to Figure 65: U.S. Airport Signs)

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49. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

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50. An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

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51. Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

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52. After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?

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53. Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration? (Refer to Figure 4: Airspeed Indicator)

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54. Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration? (Refer to Figure 4: Airspeed Indicator)

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55. The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to

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56. Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?

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57. During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the aircraft to

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58. The airspeed indicated by points A and J is (Refer to Figure 72: Velocity vs. G-Loads)

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59. In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

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60. During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?

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